Welcome to Practice Test 1.
This exam introduces you to the style, structure, and pacing of PMP questions. Use it to build confidence and strengthen your understanding of the domains and processes. Take your time and review your results carefully. Consistency creates champions.
1.
What is the primary output of the Define Activities process?
2.
The Project Manager discovers that a team member with strong technical skills is struggling to collaborate with others. Which Develop Team technique should the PM use to help the team member improve their interaction?
3.
A Project Manager determines that Activity A must finish before Activity B can finish. This is an example of which type of logical relationship?
4.
The Project Manager for a software project is using Three-Point Estimating to account for uncertainty. The most likely duration for an activity is 15 days, the optimistic is 10 days, and the pessimistic is 20 days. Using the PERT formula, what is the estimated duration?
5.
In an Agile environment, the Project Manager (Scrum Master) acts as a servant leader. The key function of this role is BEST described as:
6.
The Project Manager uses the technique of Crashing to compress the schedule. What is the PRIMARY limitation of this technique?
7.
Which of the following describes a key activity performed during the Close Project or Phase process?
8.
A Project Manager determines that the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) required to meet the original Budget at Completion (BAC) is 1.25. This indicates that the remaining work must be completed at a cost efficiency of:
9.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Quality Management. Which key output is used to ensure that the work performed by the team is measurable and verifiable?
10.
The Project Manager for a predictive project finds that a critical activity is delayed, but the project is still forecasted to finish on time. This indicates that the delayed activity:
11.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Procurement Management. Which technique should the PM use to determine whether to purchase a new piece of testing equipment or to rent it for the duration of the project?
12.
The Project Manager uses the Avoid risk response strategy. This strategy is BEST used when:
13.
In a predictive environment, the Project Manager discovers that a new regulatory requirement means the project must now use a material that is 30% more expensive. The PM should FIRST:
14.
A Project Manager uses resource leveling on the project schedule. What is the primary constraint this technique is designed to solve?
15.
The Project Manager is required to complete a complex deliverable that is unique, and the project team has very limited experience with similar work. Which estimation technique is the MOST reliable approach to accurately calculate the cost and duration?
16.
A Project Manager is asked to create a new, detailed schedule for the next three months of work, even though the project is already six months underway. This approach to planning is known as:
17.
The Project Manager is preparing the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. The desired engagement level for a key decision-maker is Managing Closely. This means the PM will:
18.
The Project Manager uses a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). The primary benefit of using the RBS is to:
19.
The Project Manager needs to finalize the procurement process for a supplier with whom the organization has a long-standing, positive relationship. The PM should use which type of source selection criteria?
20.
The Project Manager is comparing the Work Performance Information (WPI) against the Project Management Plan to determine if any intervention is required. This occurs during which process group?
21.
The Project Manager is using the Forcing technique to resolve a conflict between two team members. What is the outcome of this technique?
22.
The Project Manager is creating the Project Management Plan. The plan component that details how changes to the scope will be formally requested, approved, and incorporated is the:
23.
The Project Manager is managing a global project and finds that the PMO's standard template for the Project Management Plan is inadequate for the project's complexity. The PM should FIRST:
24.
The Project Manager for a highly technical project has great influence over the team due to their deep knowledge of the product. This influence is known as:
25.
The Project Manager has completed the Create WBS process. The WBS and WBS Dictionary, once approved, are combined with the Project Scope Statement to form the:
26.
A Project Manager discovers that a risk identified as an Opportunity has a high probability of not happening due to a shift in market conditions. Which response strategy is MOST appropriate for the Project Manager to apply to this opportunity?
27.
The Project Manager is performing Control Procurements for a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) contract. Which tool is MOST important for the PM to use to prevent cost overruns?
28.
The Project Manager calculates the Cost Performance Index (CPI) as 1.15 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) as 0.90. What is the MOST accurate interpretation of the project's performance?
29.
The Project Manager is performing Sequence Activities and uses Discretionary Dependencies. These dependencies are BEST described as:
30.
The Project Manager must use a team-developed set of ground rules that define the behavioral expectations, communication styles, and decision-making processes for all team members. This is documented in the:
31.
In an Agile project, the Project Manager (Scrum Master) is facilitating a meeting where the team reflects on its performance, identifies successful and unsuccessful elements, and defines specific improvements for the next iteration. This meeting is known as the:
32.
The Project Manager for a software project is using a Control Chart to monitor the number of defects found during system testing. The process is determined to be unstable because seven consecutive data points are trending downward. The PM should:
33.
The Project Manager is managing a project where the customer continually requests minor, unapproved modifications directly from the team members, bypassing the PM. This is a classic example of:
34.
The Project Manager wants to use a quality assurance tool to identify which process variations are due to common (random) causes and which are due to assignable (special) causes. Which tool should the PM use?
35.
The Project Manager is performing Control Quality and uses a Scatter Diagram. This tool is BEST used to:
36.
The Project Manager calculates the EAC formula: EAC = AC + ETC. This calculation is used when the PM assumes that:
37.
The Project Manager notices that a functional manager is frequently pulling resources off the project to work on non-project operational tasks, directly causing schedule delays. This situation is classified as a failure in:
38.
The Project Manager uses a Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM). Which two columns are MOST critical to include for managing the project scope and preventing gold plating?
39.
Which of the following describes the most complete ethical duty the Project Manager has regarding project status reports to stakeholders?
40.
The Project Manager needs to hold a team meeting to encourage individuals to take ownership of tasks and commit to quality standards. According to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory, which factors should the PM focus on?
41.
A Project Manager is leading a globally distributed team that often misses deadlines due to misunderstandings and delayed responses. The PM decides to implement a shared, centralized platform for all project documents and status reports. This change addresses which communication challenge?
42.
A Project Manager calculates CPI = 0.80 and SPI = 1.20. The PM decides to change the project's ETC assumption, believing the current cost inefficiency will NOT continue. The PM's new EAC calculation will BEST use which EAC formula?
43.
The Project Manager is reviewing a cost-reimbursable contract where the seller has little incentive to control costs. To fix this, the PM should consider adding a clause that specifies a maximum total payment, effectively converting it into a contract with a:
44.
The Project Manager discovers that the project team is highly skilled but lacks motivation due to a prolonged lack of acknowledgment for their extra effort. According to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory, the PM should address this by focusing on:
45.
The Project Manager is preparing the project for closure. Which activity ensures that the organizational knowledge base is updated with valuable project findings?
46.
The Project Manager is performing Control Schedule and discovers the project is significantly behind the Schedule Baseline. To recover, the PM adds more resources to a critical path activity to shorten its duration at an increased cost. This technique is known as:
47.
The Project Manager is leading a high-performing, self-directed team. The PM should adopt a leadership style that focuses on:
48.
A Project Manager uses Parametric Estimating to forecast the cost of a building construction project. The formula used is "Cost per Square Foot." This technique is characterized by its reliance on:
49.
A Project Manager uses Expert Judgment from a senior engineer to estimate the duration of an activity. This is an example of what type of project management input?
50.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Stakeholder Engagement. Which strategy is appropriate for a stakeholder who has High Power but Low Interest?
51.
The Project Manager is leading a team that has been working together for several months and has a high degree of trust. The team enters a conflict over the best technical approach. The PM should BEST encourage the team to use which resolution method?
52.
The Project Manager is performing Validate Scope. What is the key output of this process?
53.
The Project Manager for a construction project uses a contract where the seller is reimbursed for all legitimate costs incurred and receives an incentive payment if performance targets are met. What type of contract is this?
54.
The Development Team in a Hybrid project is struggling to deliver the committed scope within the two-week iteration. As the Project Manager (Scrum Master), your FIRST action should be to:
55.
A Project Manager for a geographically dispersed team must communicate complex technical changes that require two-way discussion and consensus. Which is the BEST communication method?
56.
During the Monitor and Control Project Work process, the Project Manager analyzes the raw WPD and compares it to the Project Management Plan to determine the project's current status and forecast the future. The output of this analysis is known as:
57.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Procurement Management and must select the best type of contract for a portion of work where the scope is highly uncertain, and the buyer wants to share the risk of cost overruns with the seller. Which contract is BEST suited for this situation?
58.
Which process is MOST directly concerned with ensuring that all approved Change Requests are implemented and verified?
59.
The Project Manager is utilizing the Expert Judgment tool and technique to make decisions on the technical approach for the project. Where do the experts giving this judgment primarily come from?
60.
Which of the following is the BEST definition of the Scope Baseline?
61.
The Project Manager is preparing a document that links all project deliverables to the corresponding project requirements and testing procedures. This is a critical component of:
62.
During the Acquire Resources process, the PM finds that the required technical resource is not available internally. The PM should NEXT:
63.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Stakeholder Engagement. A stakeholder has High Interest but Low Power. What is the most appropriate strategy for this individual?
64.
The Project Manager for a global project is using the Tuckman Ladder to assess the team's development. If the team is currently characterized by high conflict, resistance to PM control, and a struggle for decision-making power, the team is likely in which stage?
65.
Which document is created FIRST and provides the Project Manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?
66.
A Project Manager uses a Fishbone Diagram (Cause-and-Effect) during Perform Quality Assurance. What is the BEST way to use the diagram in this process?
67.
The Project Manager receives a verbal request from a high-power, high-interest stakeholder to change the color of the final product. The PM should FIRST:
68.
A Project Manager discovers that a high-power, highly engaged stakeholder is openly resistant to the project's key objectives. The Project Manager should FIRST:
69.
In the Plan Risk Responses process, the Project Manager identifies a threat and decides to purchase insurance to deal with the potential financial loss. This strategy is known as:
70.
The Project Manager is using the Tuckman Ladder and the team has just achieved a high degree of interdependence, efficiency, and focus on the overall project goal. The team is MOST likely in the:
71.
The Project Manager for an Agile project finds that a high-priority feature requires a complex regulatory approval process that is expected to take 30 days. To manage this dependency, the PM should:
72.
The Project Manager discovers a high-impact risk that was not identified during the risk planning process. Which fund source should the Project Manager use to address the cost of this unexpected event?
73.
In an Adaptive (Agile) project, the team determines that a planned story for the current iteration is too complex and will jeopardize the sprint goal. The Product Owner and Development Team collaboratively decide to break the complex story down into two smaller stories, deferring the lower-priority parts. This is an example of:
74.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Risk Responses and determines a positive risk event (opportunity) can be made a certainty by allocating additional resources to the activity. Which strategy is the PM utilizing?
75.
The Project Manager for a predictive project has calculated the following EVM values: BAC = $300,000, EV = $150,000, AC = $175,000, and PV = $180,000. What is the project's Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
76.
The Project Manager discovers that a team member fabricated their expense reports. This is a violation of which PMP ethical domain?
77.
The Project Manager is performing the Manage Team process. A team member is consistently disruptive, engaging in negative comments, and demoralizing others. The PM has already tried coaching and team building. The PM's NEXT step, as a last resort, should be to:
78.
The Project Manager for a critical infrastructure project identifies that a change in government leadership poses a potential threat. The PM decides to proactively engage with the new leadership to secure a continued commitment to the project. Which risk response strategy is the PM utilizing?
79.
The Project Manager for a major construction project must ensure that all quality standards are met. The PM focuses heavily on prevention over inspection and implementing corrective actions to eliminate the causes of non-conformance. This is an application of which quality process?
80.
A Project Manager observes low team morale and notices that several key team members are disengaging from meetings. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the PM should first ensure the team's needs related to:
81.
A Project Manager determines that the Estimate at Completion (EAC) is $500,000, and the Budget at Completion (BAC) is $450,000. The Variance at Completion (VAC) is:
82.
A team member brings an issue to the Project Manager's attention, stating that the requirements for their assigned task are vague. This situation is classified as:
83.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Communications Management. Which input dictates the formal reporting requirements, including the content and frequency of project updates?
84.
The Project Manager is managing a fixed-price contract. A key requirement is vague, and the seller is insisting on additional compensation to clarify and deliver it. This situation indicates a problem with which document?
85.
The Project Manager for a predictive project is using Analogous Estimating to forecast the project's BAC. The PM has reliable historical data but the scope is slightly different. The estimate is likely to be MOST accurate when:
86.
A formal Change Request has just been approved by the CCB to implement a new feature (scope change). What is the NEXT step for the Project Manager?
87.
The Project Manager is performing Define Scope and must use the Product Analysis technique. What is the primary purpose of Product Analysis?
88.
The Project Manager uses the technique of Decomposition to break down the Project Scope Statement and major deliverables into smaller, manageable components. This activity results in the creation of the:
89.
A Project Manager uses Force Field Analysis to manage team change. The purpose of this technique is to:
90.
The Project Manager uses the Finish-to-Start (FS) relationship with a 3-day lead between Activity A (Develop Code) and Activity B (Test Code). This means:
91.
A Project Manager notices that two senior team members often ignore the ground rules established in the Team Charter. The PM decides to use coercive power to enforce compliance. This use of power is known as:
92.
The Project Manager is preparing a presentation for the Project Sponsor on the financial health of the project. The PM calculates that the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is 0.95. What is the schedule status?
93.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Communications Management and determines the necessary method for communicating complex technical information to a non-technical senior management team. The PM is considering the communication's:
94.
A team member brings an unforeseen problem to the Project Manager's attention that requires immediate attention but was not documented in the Risk Register. The PM must address this problem using a:
95.
A Project Manager uses the Conflict Resolution technique of Compromise. Which of the following best describes the outcome?
96.
The Project Manager for a complex project uses the WBS to categorize costs, risks, and resources at an intermediate level where performance can be tracked and measured. This intermediate WBS component is known as a:
97.
The Project Manager for a major system upgrade project must ensure that all security requirements are reviewed and signed off by the CISO before the final deployment phase begins. This is an example of what type of dependency?
98.
The Project Manager observes that the customer often sends new requirements via email to multiple team members, leading to confusion and scope creep. Which document is MOST likely missing or being ignored?
99.
In an Agile project, the Development Team is consistently unable to meet the committed scope of work within the timebox. Which project artifact should the Product Owner use to adjust the amount of work planned for future iterations?
100.
In a predictive project, Activity A is scheduled to finish on Day 15, and Activity B is scheduled to start on Day 17. The relationship between A and B is Finish-to-Start (FS). What is the Lag between the two activities?
101.
The Project Manager must create a plan that details how project performance measurements, such as SPI and CPI, will be calculated and reported. This information should be included in the:
102.
The Project Manager is using a Decision Tree Analysis to evaluate two competing project paths. Which key input is required for this technique?
103.
A team member in an Agile project refuses to participate in the daily stand-up, claiming it's a waste of time. The Project Manager (serving as Scrum Master) should FIRST:
104.
A Project Manager uses resource smoothing on the project schedule. What is the fundamental goal of this technique?
105.
A Project Manager uses Push Communication to distribute weekly project status reports. Which of the following is the BEST example of a push communication?
106.
A Project Manager is implementing a new team policy that grants team members greater autonomy and encourages them to solve problems creatively. Which Develop Team tool/technique is the PM applying?
107.
During a quality inspection, a Project Manager uses Acceptance Sampling. This technique is MOST appropriate for which scenario?
108.
A Project Manager discovers an internal project team member is receiving confidential pricing information about a potential vendor. This situation creates an immediate:
109.
A Project Manager uses Earned Value Management and calculates PV = $100,000, EV = $110,000, and AC = $115,000. What is the Cost Variance (CV)?
110.
The Project Manager is preparing a document that outlines the rationale for the project, the high-level needs, and the financial justification. This document is known as the:
111.
A Project Manager is reviewing the final Work Performance Report (WPR) before delivering it to the Project Sponsor. The PM realizes the report is missing a required section on risk performance. This omission violates the ethical duty of:
112.
In a predictive project, the Project Manager is using the Critical Path Method (CPM). Which activity attribute is MOST critical to determine which activities can be delayed without affecting the project finish date?
113.
The Project Manager for a public utility project discovers that a team member is receiving gifts from a major vendor seeking to influence the vendor selection process. The PM's duty of Fairness requires the PM to:
114.
The Project Manager is managing a complex government contract and must ensure compliance with all legal and regulatory requirements. This ethical responsibility falls under the duty of:
115.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Stakeholder Register. Which characteristic of a stakeholder is MOST critical to include for effective Manage Stakeholder Engagement?
116.
The Project Manager is required to complete the project by October 1st, a date set by the Project Sponsor. In the absence of a Contractual Date, this is an example of what type of scheduling constraint?
117.
The Project Manager receives Work Performance Data (WPD) that shows the team has completed 15 activities and incurred a cost of $20,000. What is the BEST way for the PM to analyze this data?
118.
The Project Manager is creating the WBS Dictionary. What is the key purpose of this document?
119.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Work Performance Information (WPI) and identifies that the project is currently 15% behind schedule. The PM is now compiling this information into a Work Performance Report (WPR) for the Project Sponsor. This occurs during which process?
120.
The Project Manager uses the technique of decomposition to break down the project scope into the final work packages. The WBS resulting from this decomposition is primarily used as the input for which process?
121.
The Project Manager is preparing for the transition of the project's final product to the operational department. What is the LAST process that the Project Manager should execute?
122.
During the execution of a project, the Project Manager identifies that the cost of materials has increased due to an unexpected market shortage. The PM recognizes this as an identified risk that has now occurred. The PM should FIRST:
123.
Which process is MOST responsible for generating the final list of work that the project will NOT complete (the project exclusions)?
124.
The Project Manager is preparing a document that links all project requirements back to the Business Case and forward to a specific WBS component and a Test Case. This document is called the:
125.
The Project Manager for an Agile project finds that the team's estimated Velocity is 40 points per Sprint. The Product Backlog currently has a total size of 200 points. Approximately how many sprints will the project need to complete the current backlog?
126.
Which of the following is an example of an Enterprise Environmental Factor (EEF) that could impact the project?
127.
The Project Manager must choose a contract type for a short-term consulting engagement where the scope is well-defined, and the organization wants to pay a fixed amount, regardless of the consultant's time spent. What is the BEST contract type?
128.
The Project Manager receives project status reports that include calculated SPI and CPI values, variance analysis, and performance trends. This analyzed output is classified as:
129.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Quality Management. A key output of this process includes a structured set of documented instructions or steps that define how a task should be performed to ensure quality. This is called a:
130.
A Project Manager uses Expert Judgment from a Subject Matter Expert (SME) to identify potential risks. This is an input or technique primarily used in which risk process?
131.
The Project Manager is reviewing an approved change request that impacts the project's Cost Baseline. The next step, before starting the work, is to:
132.
A Project Manager uses Expert Judgment to estimate the cost of an activity. This is an example of what type of estimate?
133.
The Project Manager has completed a formal review of the project's quality metrics, and the results show that the process is out of statistical control. The analysis of this data leads to a:
134.
The Project Manager for a predictive project is creating a new Project Schedule Network Diagram based on the Activity List. What is the MOST critical input for creating this diagram?
135.
The Project Manager is utilizing the Analogous Estimating technique for the project's overall duration. What is the fundamental characteristic of this technique?
136.
The Project Manager uses a Requirements Documentation output from the Collect Requirements process. What is the key purpose of including the Acceptance Criteria for each requirement in this document?
137.
The Project Manager is about to send a formal status report to all stakeholders. The act of packaging and delivering the information is occurring in which process?
138.
The Project Manager is utilizing a seller on a T&M contract. To minimize the buyer's risk exposure, the PM should ensure the contract includes:
139.
In a projectized organization, who holds the primary authority for performance reviews and career progression decisions for the project team members?
140.
A Project Manager is implementing a new quality procedure that requires the team to conduct peer reviews of all code before merging. The project team is resisting this change, claiming it slows them down. As a servant leader, the PM should BEST address this by:
141.
During the Validate Scope process, the customer inspects the completed deliverables and issues formal documentation stating the work is acceptable. This formal documentation is known as:
142.
A Project Manager uses Decomposition to break down project scope into smaller work packages. In which WBS level must the project manager stop the decomposition?
143.
In an Agile project, a team member is constantly performing tasks outside the agreed-upon Definition of Done (DoD) to impress the Product Owner. This behavior is known as:
144.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Risk Responses and determines a specific threat can be eliminated by entirely removing the scope component that causes it. This strategy is known as:
145.
A Project Manager is leading a team whose motivation has decreased significantly due to the constant threat of budget cuts and layoffs. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which fundamental need should the PM prioritize addressing?
146.
What is the primary purpose of the Lessons Learned Register?
147.
The Project Manager must ensure that all team members are treated equitably in terms of assignment of work, training opportunities, and recognition. This falls under the ethical duty of:
148.
A Project Manager decides to use a 10% Contingency Reserve for the project's remaining cost. This reserve is intended to cover the cost impact of:
149.
The Project Manager calculates the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) as 0.85. This value indicates that:
150.
A Project Manager works in a Balanced Matrix organization. Who has the primary authority for setting the priorities for the technical work that the team performs?
151.
In a Predictive project, what is the MOST accurate definition of a Work Package?
152.
A Project Manager is implementing a new configuration management system to control all changes to the product design. This process is documented in the:
153.
The Project Manager has completed the Define Scope process. The primary output of this process is the Project Scope Statement. What is the key benefit of this document?
154.
The Project Manager uses a Histogram during the Control Quality process. Which type of information is the PM MOST likely seeking from this tool?
155.
A Project Manager discovers during the Control Quality process that multiple completed deliverables contain defects. What is the BEST next step for the Project Manager?
156.
A Project Manager uses Analogous Estimating for a project phase. The previous project took 80 days. This current phase is estimated to take between 60 days (optimistic) and 100 days (pessimistic). What is the accuracy range of this estimate?
157.
A Project Manager finds that a highly repetitive task in the production process is taking longer than budgeted due to worker fatigue and lack of focus. The PM should use which quality planning tool to determine the most effective place to intervene?
158.
The Project Manager identifies that the security requirement for the product is highly complex and must be managed carefully. The PM should document this requirement as a:
159.
The Project Manager is preparing a purchase order for commodity hardware. The most appropriate procurement document for this well-defined, low-complexity item is a:
160.
In an Adaptive (Agile) project, the team has just completed the Sprint Review meeting. What is the NEXT logical activity in the Scrum framework?
161.
During the Manage Communications process, the Project Manager is dealing with a diverse set of stakeholders. The PM should ensure that all communication adheres to the ethical duty of Respect by BEST applying which principle?
162.
The Project Manager uses a Risk Register entry that states: "The risk of a key material price increase has an 80% probability of occurring, which would result in a $50,000 cost increase." What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) for this risk?
163.
A Project Manager is leading a high-profile, high-risk project. The PM is spending significant time identifying, analyzing, and developing specific responses for potential threats and opportunities. This effort results in the creation of which document?
164.
The Project Manager is reviewing the latest EVM data: PV = $200,000, EV = $190,000, and AC = $180,000. What is the Schedule Variance (SV)?
165.
The Project Manager is using a Time and Materials (T&M) contract for a small portion of the work. What is the GREATEST risk for the Buyer under this contract type?
166.
The Project Manager has completed the Develop Project Charter process. What is the NEXT process that should be initiated?
167.
The Project Manager uses a Control Chart to monitor project quality. The chart shows that three consecutive data points fall outside the upper control limit (UCL). The PM should issue a:
168.
What is the primary purpose of the Project Charter?
169.
The Project Manager uses the Critical Path Method (CPM) to calculate the longest duration path in the project schedule. The activities on this path have:
170.
What is the key difference between Contingency Reserve and the Management Reserve?
171.
The Project Manager uses a Fishbone Diagram (also known as a Cause-and-Effect or Ishikawa diagram) during the quality planning process. What is the primary function of this tool?
172.
Which of the following describes a mandatory dependency (or hard logic)?
173.
In an EVM calculation, the EAC is calculated to be $120,000, and the BAC is $100,000. The TCPI based on BAC is 1.33. The PM should interpret this data as:
174.
The Project Manager is preparing a document that will be used to detail the roles, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and organizational structure of the project. This document is known as the:
175.
A Project Manager is reviewing the RACI chart and finds that a key stakeholder is listed as "Consulted" but is demanding to be listed as "Accountable." The PM should FIRST:
176.
A Project Manager uses Ground Rules to ensure all team members feel comfortable speaking up during meetings, regardless of their position or experience. This is an application of which ethical duty?
177.
The Project Manager receives an approved Change Request from the CCB to modify the product scope. What is the FIRST document the PM must update before beginning the execution of the changed work?
178.
The Project Manager is performing Control Quality and decides to use a Pareto Chart. What is the key principle this tool is designed to support?
179.
A Project Manager is negotiating with a vendor for a highly complex, customized product. The Project Manager wants to shift most of the cost risk to the seller, but needs to provide a strong profit motive for the seller to control costs. Which contract type is the BEST choice?
180.
The Project Manager calculates the Cost Variance (CV) as −$15,000. This indicates that:
Great work.
You have taken an important step toward PMP readiness. Review your answers and ensure you understand the reasoning behind each one. Identify areas that need more attention and revisit the related sections on the Master Scroll. You are progressing well.