Welcome to Practice Test 2.
You have reached the next stage of your preparation. This test adds complexity and deeper situational scenarios. Focus on applying logic, process alignment, and exam strategy. Learn from every question. Improvement is the path.
1.
The Project Manager is leading a small, high-priority project using an Adaptive (Agile) approach. The Product Owner frequently asks the team to add extra features that were not in the initial iteration plan, believing they will improve the customer experience. This is an example of:
2.
The Project Manager is preparing a Status Report. A key component of this report is the Work Performance Information which includes:
3.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Stakeholder Register. Which component of the register is most likely to change least frequently?
4.
The Project Manager for a predictive project is using Parametric Estimating based on the equation Cost = $100 × Square Feet. The project scope is 2,000 square feet, but the scope definition is still uncertain. The PM's estimate is likely to be:
5.
The Project Manager is performing Develop Schedule and uses the Lag concept. A Lag is best defined as:
6.
The Project Manager is preparing the WBS Dictionary. What is the key purpose of this document?
7.
The Project Manager is performing Acquire Resources and finds that a highly skilled resource is only available for two weeks of the six weeks needed for a critical activity. The PM must use a technique to address this resource overallocation. Which technique should the PM use?
8.
The Project Manager is developing a Project Charter. Which input provides the high-level business justification and the financial analysis needed to start the project?
9.
The Project Manager is reviewing Stakeholder Engagement levels. A stakeholder is listed as Current = Supportive and Desired = Supportive. The PM should BEST manage this stakeholder by:
10.
The Project Manager is documenting Lessons Learned throughout the project, noting both successes and failures. These lessons are formally finalized and added to the Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) during which process?
11.
The Project Manager determines that a schedule threat (e.g., a key resource leaving) will not be acceptable. The PM offers a signing bonus to ensure the resource stays. This positive risk strategy is known as:
12.
The Project Manager calculates BAC = $100,000, EV = $60,000, and AC = $75,000. The PM assumes that the current poor CPI (0.80) will continue. What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
13.
The Project Manager is determining the best way to manage the flow of work and limit Work In Progress (WIP) to improve efficiency. Which principle is the PM applying?
14.
The Project Manager is performing Control Cost and calculates the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on BAC as 1.10. This indicates that the PM should tell the team that:
15.
The Project Manager for a custom IT system is using a contract that specifies hourly rates for specific categories of resources (e.g., Senior Developer, $150/hour) and also includes a Not-To-Exceed (NTE) maximum total price. What type of contract is this?
16.
The Project Manager has calculated that the project's Cost Variance (CV) is $0 and the Schedule Variance (SV) is $0. This indicates that the project is:
17.
The Project Manager is using the Gold Plating technique by adding extra quality checks not requested by the customer. This is unacceptable because it:
18.
The Project Manager needs to estimate the duration of an activity. The most likely estimate is 10 days, the optimistic is 8 days, and the pessimistic is 18 days. Using the Triangular Distribution (simple average), what is the estimated duration?
19.
The Project Manager is reviewing a new contract with a vendor. The contract states that the vendor will be paid a maximum price, but if the final cost is less than the target cost, the savings are split 80/20 between the buyer and the seller. What contract type is this?
20.
The Project Manager wants to calculate the EAC assuming that the project will continue to spend at the same rate as originally planned (BAC's rate). The appropriate EAC formula is:
21.
The Project Manager is using a Control Chart to monitor a manufacturing process. A data point falls outside the Upper Control Limit (UCL). This is an indication that the process is:
22.
In an Agile environment, the PM (Scrum Master) finds that the Product Owner is constantly interrupting the team with urgent requests that were not part of the current Sprint Backlog. The PM should BEST respond by:
23.
The Project Manager is using the Collaborating conflict resolution technique. The PM understands that this technique is most effective when the following is present:
24.
The Project Manager must provide a formal record of all work completed on the project and archive it. This is a key output of which closing process?
25.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Communications Management. The PM uses a technique that involves determining the information needs of all stakeholders and balancing those needs against the risk of overloading them. This is known as:
26.
The Project Manager is performing Identify Stakeholders. The PM's goal is to ensure that no potential stakeholder is missed. Which document is the BEST source of information for this purpose?
27.
The Project Manager is reviewing the WBS to ensure that 100% of the project scope is included in the plan. This is an example of which Scope Management principle?
28.
The Project Manager is leading a team where virtual communication is necessary. To build trust and ensure clarity, the PM should BEST rely on which type of communication?
29.
The Project Manager is performing Validate Scope. What is the key outcome of this process?
30.
The Project Manager calculates the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the BAC as 0.90. This means that:
31.
The Project Manager must provide an initial high-level estimate of the project's duration. The PM decides to use data from a similar past project and Expert Judgment. This is an example of what type of estimation?
32.
The Project Manager wants to use a single document that summarizes the overall financial health of the project, including the BAC, EAC, CPI, and SPI. This information is BEST contained in the:
33.
The Project Manager is performing Manage Stakeholder Engagement. A team member informs the PM that a key customer is upset because they have been receiving too many emails that are not relevant to their needs. This is an example of:
34.
The Project Manager wants to use a Risk Audit as a technique. The purpose of a Risk Audit is to:
35.
A Project Manager decides to shorten the project schedule by adding more resources to critical path activities, despite the resulting increase in cost. This is an example of what schedule compression technique?
36.
The Project Manager wants to increase team performance by providing more Hygiene Factors. According to Herzberg's Theory, the PM should focus on improving:
37.
The Project Manager is dealing with an approved Change Request that impacts the schedule. The PM's BEST next action to manage the schedule impact is to:
38.
The Project Manager determines that a highly desired positive risk (Opportunity) can be made a certainty by allocating additional funds to ensure it occurs. Which risk response strategy is being used?
39.
The Project Manager is determining the best organizational structure for the project team, considering factors like geography, communication needs, and budget. This is part of which PM process?
40.
A Project Manager is working on a high-velocity project using Scrum. The team is reviewing the Increment (the finished product of the Sprint) with stakeholders to obtain feedback. This meeting is called the:
41.
The Project Manager is reviewing the team's Sprint Velocity. If the velocity has been 45 points consistently, and a new Sprint Backlog contains 60 points of work, the PM should BEST advise the Product Owner to:
42.
A Project Manager is facilitating a Brainstorming session with the team to identify risks. The PM ensures that all ideas are captured without criticism or debate. This technique is MOST effective for:
43.
A Project Manager is working with a vendor on a Cost-Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract. The PM should be most concerned about which of the following risks?
44.
The Project Manager is performing the Plan Procurement Management process. Which decision is the key output of a Make-or-Buy Analysis?
45.
The Project Manager is communicating complex, technical details to a team of Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) who are geographically dispersed. Which communication method is the BEST choice?
46.
The Project Manager is updating the Issue Log. What is the key difference between an Issue and a Risk?
47.
The Project Manager is developing the Project Management Plan. Which plan component guides how to deal with negative results from Control Quality inspections?
48.
The Project Manager is reviewing the latest performance data and finds that the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is 1.05. This indicates that:
49.
The Project Manager is using the Manage Team process. Which is an example of an Interpersonal and Team Skill used to influence the team toward improving performance?
50.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Risk Responses and determines that a potential security threat can be completely removed by choosing a different technology solution. This strategy is known as:
51.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Stakeholder Engagement. A stakeholder is listed as Current = Neutral and Desired = Leading. The PM should focus the engagement strategy on:
52.
The Project Manager has determined that a risk of server failure can be significantly reduced by buying new, high-quality, redundant hardware. This risk response strategy is known as:
53.
The Project Manager receives a suggestion from a key stakeholder to simplify a process by eliminating three non-value-add steps. The PM should treat this suggestion as a potential:
54.
The Project Manager is using the Decision Tree Analysis technique in Quantitative Risk Analysis. The key output of this technique is the:
55.
The Project Manager for a government project must ensure compliance with all environmental and safety regulations. This falls under the Project Manager's ethical duty of:
56.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Communications Management. Which factor is most critical in determining the richness of the communication channel required?
57.
The Project Manager for a complex project uses a contract where the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs plus a predetermined fee. The fee does not change regardless of the seller's final cost performance. What type of contract is this?
58.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Quality Management. A key output of this process used to ensure that the work will be inspected and verified is the:
59.
In an Agile environment, the Project Manager (Scrum Master) finds that a key organizational barrier is preventing the team from accessing necessary testing environments. The PM's primary action should be to:
60.
The Project Manager decides to shorten the project by changing the dependencies between two activities from Finish-to-Start (FS) to Start-to-Start (SS). This technique is known as:
61.
A Project Manager is using an Agile approach. During the Sprint Planning meeting, the team should BEST focus on:
62.
The Project Manager is reviewing the team's ability to meet future project deadlines. The most reliable EVM formula for forecasting the final schedule duration is the:
63.
The Project Manager is leading a team where the technical lead is consistently late for the daily stand-up and often interrupts others during discussions. The PM should BEST handle this situation by:
64.
The Project Manager wants to use a Reserve Analysis technique during Determine Budget. This technique is used to:
65.
The Project Manager is performing Identify Risks. Which statement best describes the difference between a Risk Category (e.g., Technical, External) and a Risk Trigger?
66.
The Project Manager must provide status updates to a large group of external stakeholders who need basic, standardized information at regular intervals. Which communication method is the BEST for this audience and need?
67.
The Project Manager is performing Sequence Activities and uses a Start-to-Finish (SF) dependency between Activity A (Predecessor) and Activity B (Successor). This means:
68.
The Project Manager is performing Control Quality. The PM is using Inspection as a technique. The purpose of Inspection is to:
69.
The Project Manager calculates PV = $20,000, EV = $18,000, and AC = $19,000. What is the project's Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
70.
The Project Manager discovers an internal team member is accepting expensive gifts from a vendor who is currently submitting a bid for a major contract. This situation violates the ethical duty of:
71.
The Project Manager has just completed the Develop Project Charter process. What is the logical NEXT step for the PM?
72.
The Project Manager is trying to estimate the cost of an activity. The cost estimate needs to be as accurate as possible. Which technique should the PM use to achieve the highest level of accuracy?
73.
The Project Manager is reviewing the status of a project. SPI = 0.80 and CPI = 1.20. What action should the PM take first?
74.
The Project Manager calculates CPI = 0.95 and SPI = 1.05. What is the MOST accurate interpretation of the project's performance?
75.
The Project Manager is using the Withdrawal conflict resolution technique. This technique is BEST used when:
76.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Risk Responses and determines that a potential opportunity (positive risk) has a high chance of success. The PM offers a joint venture with a third party to capitalize on the opportunity together. This strategy is known as:
77.
The Project Manager is performing Manage Communications. Which is an example of Pull Communication?
78.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Scope Statement. A key component of the Scope Statement that helps to prevent scope creep by clarifying project limits is the:
79.
The Project Manager is applying the Theory of Constraints. This theory emphasizes that the PM should focus efforts on:
80.
The Project Manager is using the Parametric Estimating technique. This technique involves:
81.
The Project Manager wants to use a Pareto Chart to analyze defect data. What is the primary principle behind using a Pareto Chart?
82.
The Project Manager wants to measure the team's efficiency in delivering value during Sprints. Which Agile metric is BEST suited for this purpose?
83.
The Project Manager wants to use a Control Chart to determine if a manufacturing process is stable and predictable. The chart shows all data points are within the Upper and Lower Control Limits (UCL and LCL), but there is a clear, repeating pattern of seven consecutive points above the mean line. This is an indication of:
84.
The Project Manager identifies that a key team member is struggling with motivation and engagement. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the PM should first check if the team member's:
85.
The Project Manager wants to use a quality tool that shows the relationship between two variables to determine if one variable (e.g., training hours) influences the other (e.g., number of defects). Which tool should the PM use?
86.
The Project Manager is working on a high-velocity project and needs to quickly transfer the financial risk of the team needing outside consulting services. The PM should BEST use a:
87.
Which of the following is an example of an Organizational Process Asset (OPA)?
88.
The Project Manager uses the technique of Decomposition to break down the Project Scope Statement and major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. This activity results in the creation of the:
89.
The Project Manager is performing Control Scope. What is the primary tool and technique used to confirm that changes to the scope are processed according to the plan?
90.
The Project Manager is performing Control Procurements. The vendor submits a claim for additional payment due to a change in the scope of work. The PM should use which technique to resolve this claim?
91.
A Project Manager is using a Fishbone (Ishikawa) Diagram to analyze a persistent problem with poor software integration. The main categories used in the diagram (e.g., People, Process, Equipment) are generally intended to help the team:
92.
The Project Manager is using Analogous Estimating for a new activity. The previous similar activity took 100 hours to complete. The new activity is considered 10% more complex. What is the BEST estimate for the new activity's duration?
93.
The Project Manager uses the Controlling Quality process to inspect a deliverable. The primary output of this process is:
94.
The Project Manager is facilitating the Team Charter creation. The BEST use for the Team Charter is to:
95.
The Project Manager is leading an Agile team and notices that one team member is consistently dominating discussions and stifling ideas during the Sprint Retrospective. The PM's BEST action as a Servant Leader is to:
96.
The Project Manager is assessing a team member's performance and finds they are consistently failing to meet deadlines due to being overburdened with non-project work assigned by their functional manager. The PM should BEST address this by:
97.
The Project Manager uses the AC (Actual Cost) and EV (Earned Value) to determine the Cost Variance (CV) as −$10,000. This negative variance means:
98.
The Project Manager for a high-profile project is highly knowledgeable about the product's technical details. This knowledge gives the PM Expert Power. The primary benefit of using Expert Power is that it:
99.
The Project Manager is using the Critical Path Method (CPM). The PM should focus MOST of their attention on the activities on the Critical Path because:
100.
The Project Manager wants to use a quality tool that helps trace a specific problem (e.g., "Late Deliveries") back to its original set of potential causes. Which tool should the PM use?
101.
The Project Manager is performing a Quantitative Risk Analysis. Which technique is used to calculate the financial impact of various scenarios by multiplying the probability of an outcome by its financial value?
102.
The Project Manager needs to shorten the project schedule and considers Fast Tracking or Crashing. The key difference is that Crashing always:
103.
The Project Manager is reviewing the team's Time Reporting System to ensure that all hours worked are being charged correctly to the project's Control Accounts. This activity is a key component of:
104.
The Project Manager for a construction project uses the technique of Fast Tracking. This is best described as:
105.
The Project Manager is performing Control Schedule. The PM discovers a delay on the Critical Path that cannot be recovered. The PM must now:
106.
The Project Manager is leading a high-risk project and wants to set aside a financial buffer for known risks that have been actively identified, analyzed, and planned for. This reserve is called the:
107.
The Project Manager is using the Compromising conflict resolution technique between two functional groups. This technique is often described as a "lose-lose" solution because:
108.
The Project Manager is using an FPIF (Fixed Price Incentive Fee) contract. The Point of Total Assumption (PTA) is the point at which:
109.
The Project Manager is reviewing the project network diagram. A specific activity has an Early Start (ES) of 5 days, a Late Start (LS) of 12 days, and a duration of 4 days. What is the Total Float (TF) for this activity?
110.
The Project Manager wants to use a Quality tool that helps determine if the steps in a process are sequenced logically and efficiently. Which tool should the PM use?
111.
The Project Manager is facilitating a meeting to finalize the acceptance of the project's main software module from the customer. This meeting is part of which project process?
112.
The Project Manager is reviewing the WBS Dictionary. Which WBS level is typically the lowest level of breakdown for which cost and duration are estimated and controlled?
113.
The Project Manager wants to increase team efficiency by providing more autonomy and ownership of the work. This action aligns most closely with which theory?
114.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Scope Baseline. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Scope Baseline?
115.
The Project Manager is determining how to acquire the specific skilled resources needed for the project, including the use of competitive bidding for contractors. This falls under the PM process of:
116.
The Project Manager is performing Validate Scope. What is the key input to this process that the customer uses to confirm the functionality of the deliverable?
117.
The Project Manager is reviewing the results of a Quality Audit, which found that the process for collecting requirements is inefficient and frequently misses key details. The PM should issue a:
118.
The Project Manager receives a minor, undocumented request from a customer to change the color of a screen element. The PM is tempted to make the change quickly without formal process. This action is most likely a violation of the Manage Communications process and could lead to:
119.
The Project Manager is using a Fixed Price (FFP) contract for a high-value deliverable. Which statement is true regarding FFP contracts?
120.
The Project Manager notices that two key stakeholders are arguing privately about project priorities and this is affecting their teams' performance. The PM should BEST intervene using which technique to de-escalate the situation and ensure a neutral outcome?
121.
The Project Manager is leading an Agile team that has been consistently delivering 50 story points of value every two-week sprint. The total remaining work in the backlog is 250 story points. The Project Manager should forecast that the remaining project work will be completed in:
122.
The Project Manager must address a team member who is struggling to integrate their work with the rest of the team. The PM is using a Coaching technique. This is performed during which PM process?
123.
The Project Manager for a construction project needs to ensure that the concrete foundation is fully cured before the structural framing begins. This is an example of what type of dependency?
124.
The Project Manager is performing Estimate Activity Durations and uses the formula: (Optimistic + 4 × Most Likely + Pessimistic) ÷ 6. This is the formula for which type of estimate?
125.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Requirements Documentation. Which of the following attributes is NOT a characteristic of a well-written requirement?
126.
A Project Manager is working in an environment where resources are assigned from a central pool and the PM has some authority over budget and schedule, but the Functional Manager still manages resource careers. This is MOST characteristic of which organization type?
127.
The Project Manager receives an invoice from a vendor for a Firm Fixed Price contract. The PM should verify that the payment is correct during which process?
128.
The Project Manager is reviewing the latest EVM data: PV = $150,000, EV = $135,000, and AC = $130,000. What is the project's Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
129.
In a Predictive project, the Project Manager calculates the Total Float for an activity as 0. This means the activity:
130.
The Project Manager is performing Determine Budget. The Cost Aggregation technique involves:
131.
The Project Manager is performing a Qualitative Risk Analysis. A key outcome of this process is the:
132.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Quality Management. A key output of this process is the Quality Management Plan. The purpose of this plan is to:
133.
A Project Manager is using an Adaptive (Agile) approach. Which document provides the single authorized source of work that needs to be done?
134.
A risk event has occurred, but it was not identified in the Risk Register. The Project Manager must develop an immediate, unplanned response to address the consequences. This unplanned action is known as a:
135.
The Project Manager for a construction project needs to determine the latest possible start date for a critical activity without delaying the project finish date. Which scheduling calculation should the PM use?
136.
The Project Manager for a construction project needs to ensure that the inspection of the electrical wiring starts no earlier than 5 days after the wiring installation is complete. This is an example of adding:
137.
The Project Manager is performing Control Quality and finds that a completed deliverable is defective. The PM should issue a:
138.
A Project Manager is using Delphi Technique during Collect Requirements. This technique is characterized by:
139.
The Project Manager is preparing a presentation for the Project Sponsor to explain the status of the project budget. The PM has calculated CPI = 0.90. The PM should state that the project is:
140.
The Project Manager uses Fast Tracking to shorten the project schedule. The major disadvantage of Fast Tracking is that it:
141.
The Project Manager is using the Theory Y management style. This style assumes that team members:
142.
The Project Manager is performing Develop Project Team and observes that the team members are starting to openly challenge the PM's authority and debate over processes and responsibilities. According to the Tuckman Ladder, the team is MOST likely in the:
143.
The Project Manager notices that two team members are having a high-intensity, personal conflict that is negatively affecting team morale and productivity. The PM must intervene immediately to restore order. Which conflict resolution technique is MOST appropriate in this urgent situation?
144.
The Project Manager is reviewing Earned Value data: PV = $40,000, EV = $36,000, AC = $45,000. The PM needs to calculate the Estimate To Complete (ETC), assuming the remaining work will be performed at the budgeted rate.
145.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Cost Baseline. Which of the following is NOT included in the Cost Baseline?
146.
A Project Manager is working with a large team and needs to calculate the number of unique communication channels. If the team has 10 members (including the Project Manager), how many communication channels exist?
147.
The Project Manager has determined that a risk of resource unavailability can be reduced by cross-training two junior team members to perform the senior expert's tasks. This positive risk strategy is known as:
148.
The Project Manager is using the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle to improve project processes. This cycle is most closely associated with the work of:
149.
In a Predictive project, the Project Manager is using Rolling Wave Planning. This technique is characterized by:
150.
The Project Manager is using the Collaborating (Problem Solving) conflict resolution technique. This technique is MOST effective because it:
151.
The Project Manager is using the Resource Leveling technique. What is the primary purpose of this technique?
152.
A Project Manager is asked to give a high-level, quick cost estimate with a wide range, often considered −25% to +75% accuracy. This is a characteristic of which estimate type?
153.
The Project Manager wants to formally close a procurement contract that has been completed and formally accepted. Which document is the critical output of the Close Procurement process?
154.
The Project Manager is performing Control Procurements. The main goal of this process is to ensure that:
155.
The Project Manager is performing Plan Risk Responses. The team decides to reduce the severity of a threat by ensuring that redundant backups are in place for the system. This strategy is known as:
156.
A key stakeholder with high power and low interest is currently listed as "Neutral" in the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix. The PM's BEST strategy should be to:
157.
The Project Manager wants to use a tool to visually depict the sequencing of project activities and their dependencies. This will be used to determine the Critical Path. Which tool should the PM use?
158.
The Project Manager for a custom software project discovers an issue with a key requirement not linking back to a valid business need. Which document should the PM use to immediately trace the requirement's origin?
159.
The Project Manager receives an approved Change Request to add a new security feature to the product. The FIRST step the PM must take before directing the team to begin the work is to:
160.
A Project Manager is facilitating a meeting to develop the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. The PM wants to use a technique that categorizes stakeholders based on their degree of authority and their capacity to involve themselves in the project. Which classification model should the PM use?
161.
The Project Manager is facilitating the Daily Stand-up in an Agile project. The PM notices that the team is spending too much time discussing solutions to complex technical problems. The PM should BEST respond by:
162.
The Project Manager is performing Control Schedule. The PM finds that the Total Float for a series of activities is −15 days. This negative float means:
163.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Budget at Completion (BAC), which is $500,000. The Estimate at Completion (EAC) is calculated as $550,000. The PM should forecast the final Variance at Completion (VAC) as:
164.
The Project Manager for a large organization is working with a vendor who has significant Expert Power due to their unique, proprietary technology. The PM should be most aware that the vendor could potentially use this power to:
165.
The Project Manager for a major defense contract is required to use certified vendors from an approved list provided by the government. This is an example of a restriction that falls under:
166.
The Project Manager is creating a document that defines the specific, measurable standards (e.g., number of defects allowed per thousand lines of code) that must be met for project success. This is a key component of the:
167.
The Project Manager is reviewing the contract for a high-risk activity where the scope is not precisely known. The PM believes a contract type that reimburses the seller for all costs while providing a fee based on meeting performance goals is best. Which contract type is BEST suited?
168.
A Project Manager is working with a vendor who requires a clear and precise set of physical characteristics and functional requirements for the requested item. The PM should provide the vendor with a:
169.
The Project Manager is performing Qualitative Risk Analysis. A risk is calculated to have a high probability and a moderate impact. The PM should BEST prioritize this risk for:
170.
A Project Manager calculates the Schedule Variance (SV) as +$15,000. This positive variance means:
171.
A project team member has delivered a component that meets the technical specifications but is not fully operational because it was not tested under the correct environmental conditions. This means the deliverable is:
172.
The Project Manager is performing Control Quality. The primary focus of this process is to ensure the project deliverable is:
173.
The Project Manager for an Agile project is hosting the Retrospective meeting. The main goal of this meeting is to:
174.
The Project Manager wants to use a Control Chart to set the Upper and Lower Control Limits. These limits are generally set at:
175.
The Project Manager determines that a schedule threat can be Transferred to a third party. A common method for implementing the Transfer strategy is to:
176.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. A key stakeholder is listed as "Resistant" but is required to be "Supportive." The PM should focus the engagement strategy on:
177.
A Project Manager is working in a strong Matrix Organization. Who is primarily responsible for the day-to-day management and career development of the project team members?
178.
The Project Manager is reviewing the Risk Register for a new risk. The PM has decided to accept the risk, but only after setting aside a Contingency Reserve and defining a specific, pre-planned response to be used if it occurs. This response is called a:
179.
The Project Manager receives a Change Request that will benefit the project but requires an increase in the Contingency Reserve. The change should first be reviewed by the:
180.
The Project Manager is using a Control Chart to monitor defects. If the data points show a clear trend upward over a series of 8 points, but all points are still within the control limits, the process is exhibiting a:
Well done.
This test pushed you further into intermediate and situational reasoning. Study your results carefully. Focus on any recurring gaps. Use the Master Scroll literature and flashcards to reinforce your weak areas. Growth is continuous.